I understand the rules around what constitutes a duplicate question. My question is in regard to use of marking a specific question as duplicate, and the question selected as duplicate does not have an actual marked answer.
Do we care? An example: Error using view to limit data access between databases in SQL Server. Which at this time the question is not closed as duplicate, could get there soon.
It seems odd to me, marking the question as duplicate when the question used does not have a marked answer. It does not necessarily mean that the question used does not have an appropriate answer, could have high votes and the OP just never came back and marked it.
I would think the question is placed as a reference in the duplicated question, with something like "did you check out the answer to this question". It might be enough to cause them to just close their question. In this case the OP stated they tried the method used in the other question and it did not work.
I guess just looking for clarification if it is sufficient to close a question as duplicate with another question that does not have an actual answer?